Download CompTIA Network-Certification.N10-009.Marks4Sure.2024-10-20.52q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: N10-009
Exam Name: CompTIA Network-Certification
Date: Oct 20, 2024
File Size: 87 KB
Downloads: 5

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Demo Questions

Question 1
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space.
Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
  1.   724
  2.   /26
  3.   /28
  4.   /30
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
Question 2
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
  1.   ESP
  2.   AH
  3.   GRE
  4.   UDP
  5.   TCP
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.ESP Functionality:ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).Comparison with Other Protocols:AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.Use Cases:ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.
  • Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
    • ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.
  • ESP Functionality:
    • ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.
    • ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).
  • Comparison with Other Protocols:
    • AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.
    • GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.
    • UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.
  • Use Cases:
    • ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.
Question 3
An organization has a security requirement that all network connections can be traced back to a user. A network administrator needs to identify a solution to implement on the wireless network. Which of the following is the best solution?
  1.   Implementingenterprise authentication
  2.   Requiring theuse of PSKs
  3.   Configuring acaptive portal for users
  4.   Enforcing wired equivalent protection
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.
Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.
Question 4
A network administrator notices interference with industrial equipment in the 2.4GHz range. Which of the following technologies would most likely mitigate this issue? (Select two).
  1.   Mesh network
  2.   5GHz frequency
  3.   Omnidirectional antenna
  4.   Non-overlapping channel
  5.   Captive portal
  6.   Ad hoc network
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding 2.4GHz Interference:The 2.4GHz frequency range is commonly used by many devices, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and various industrial equipment. This can lead to interference and degraded performance.Mitigation Strategies:5GHz Frequency:The 5GHz frequency band offers more channels and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band. Devices operating on 5GHz are less likely to encounter interference from other devices, including industrial equipment.Non-overlapping Channels:In the 2.4GHz band, using non-overlapping channels (such as channels 1, 6, and 11) can help reduce interference. Non-overlapping channels do not interfere with each other, providing clearer communication paths for Wi-Fi signals.Why Other Options are Less Effective:Mesh Network: While useful for extending network coverage, a mesh network does not inherently address interference issues.Omnidirectional Antenna: This type of antenna broadcasts signals in all directions but does not mitigate interference.Captive Portal: A web page that users must view and interact with before accessing a network, unrelated to frequency interference.Ad Hoc Network: A decentralized wireless network that does not address interference issues directly.Implementation:Switch Wi-Fi devices to the 5GHz band if supported by the network infrastructure and client devices.Configure Wi-Fi access points to use non-overlapping channels within the 2.4GHz band to minimize interference.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and interference mitigation.
  • Understanding 2.4GHz Interference:
    • The 2.4GHz frequency range is commonly used by many devices, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and various industrial equipment. This can lead to interference and degraded performance.
  • Mitigation Strategies:
    • 5GHz Frequency:
      • The 5GHz frequency band offers more channels and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band. Devices operating on 5GHz are less likely to encounter interference from other devices, including industrial equipment.
    • Non-overlapping Channels:
      • In the 2.4GHz band, using non-overlapping channels (such as channels 1, 6, and 11) can help reduce interference. Non-overlapping channels do not interfere with each other, providing clearer communication paths for Wi-Fi signals.
  • Why Other Options are Less Effective:
    • Mesh Network: While useful for extending network coverage, a mesh network does not inherently address interference issues.
    • Omnidirectional Antenna: This type of antenna broadcasts signals in all directions but does not mitigate interference.
    • Captive Portal: A web page that users must view and interact with before accessing a network, unrelated to frequency interference.
    • Ad Hoc Network: A decentralized wireless network that does not address interference issues directly.
  • Implementation:
    • Switch Wi-Fi devices to the 5GHz band if supported by the network infrastructure and client devices.
    • Configure Wi-Fi access points to use non-overlapping channels within the 2.4GHz band to minimize interference.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and interference mitigation.
Question 5
To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?
  1.   Public
  2.   Hybrid
  3.   SaaS
  4.   Private
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.
A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.
Question 6
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the architect take to troubleshoot the issue?
  1.   Check to see if the end connections were wrapped in copper tape before terminating.
  2.   Use passthrough modular crimping plugs instead of traditional crimping plugs.
  3.   Connect the RX/TX wires to different pins.
  4.   Run a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds.
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Importance of Proper Termination:Cat 8 cabling requires precise termination practices to ensure signal integrity and reduce interference. One common requirement is to wrap the end connections in copper tape to maintain shielding and reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).Interference Troubleshooting:Interference in high-frequency cables like Cat 8 can be caused by improper shielding or grounding. Checking the end connections for proper wrapping in copper tape is a crucial step.Why Other Options are Less Likely:Passthrough modular crimping plugs: Not specifically related to interference issues and are typically used for ease of cable assembly.Connecting RX/TX wires to different pins: Would likely result in no connection or incorrect data transmission rather than interference.Running a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds: This would not diagnose interference and would not provide relevant information for Cat 8 cabling rated for higher speeds.Corrective Actions:Verify that all end connections are properly wrapped with copper tape before termination.Ensure that the shielding is continuous and properly grounded throughout the installation.Retest the cabling for interference after making corrections.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and structured cabling installation guides.
  • Importance of Proper Termination:
    • Cat 8 cabling requires precise termination practices to ensure signal integrity and reduce interference. One common requirement is to wrap the end connections in copper tape to maintain shielding and reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).
  • Interference Troubleshooting:
    • Interference in high-frequency cables like Cat 8 can be caused by improper shielding or grounding. Checking the end connections for proper wrapping in copper tape is a crucial step.
  • Why Other Options are Less Likely:
    • Passthrough modular crimping plugs: Not specifically related to interference issues and are typically used for ease of cable assembly.
    • Connecting RX/TX wires to different pins: Would likely result in no connection or incorrect data transmission rather than interference.
    • Running a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds: This would not diagnose interference and would not provide relevant information for Cat 8 cabling rated for higher speeds.
  • Corrective Actions:
    • Verify that all end connections are properly wrapped with copper tape before termination.
    • Ensure that the shielding is continuous and properly grounded throughout the installation.
    • Retest the cabling for interference after making corrections.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and structured cabling installation guides.
Question 7
An administrator is configuring a switch that will be placed in an area of the office that is accessible to customers. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to mitigate unknown devices from connecting to the network?
  1.   SSE
  2.   ACL
  3.   Perimeter network
  4.   802.1x
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
802.1x is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. This ensures that only authorized devices can access the network, making it ideal for mitigating the risk of unknown devices connecting to the network, especially in accessible areas.802.1x Authentication: Requires devices to authenticate using credentials (e.g., username and password, certificates) before gaining network access.Access Control: Prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, enhancing security in public or semi-public areas.Implementation: Typically used in conjunction with a RADIUS server to manage authentication requests.Network References:CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers 802.1x and its role in network security.Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing 802.1x for secure network access control.Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and configuration of 802.1x authentication in securing network access.
802.1x is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. This ensures that only authorized devices can access the network, making it ideal for mitigating the risk of unknown devices connecting to the network, especially in accessible areas.
  • 802.1x Authentication: Requires devices to authenticate using credentials (e.g., username and password, certificates) before gaining network access.
  • Access Control: Prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, enhancing security in public or semi-public areas.
  • Implementation: Typically used in conjunction with a RADIUS server to manage authentication requests.
Network References:
  • CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers 802.1x and its role in network security.
  • Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing 802.1x for secure network access control.
  • Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and configuration of 802.1x authentication in securing network access.
Question 8
A user is unable to navigate to a website because the provided URL is not resolving to the correct IP address.
Other users are able to navigate to the intended website without issue. Which of the following is most likely causing this issue?
  1.   Hosts file
  2.   Self-signed certificate
  3.   Nameserver record
  4.   IP helper
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Role of the Hosts File:The hosts file is a local file on a computer that maps hostnames to IP addresses. It can be used to override DNS resolution by providing a static mapping of a hostname to an IP address.Common Issues with the Hosts File:If an incorrect IP address is mapped to a hostname in the hosts file, it can cause the computer to resolve the hostname to the wrong IP address. This can lead to navigation issues for specific websites while other users, relying on DNS, do not face the same problem.Why Other Options are Less Likely:Self-signed certificate: Relates to SSL/TLS and would cause a security warning, not a navigation failure.Nameserver record: Affects all users, not just one.IP helper: Used to forward DHCP requests and is unrelated to DNS resolution issues.Troubleshooting Steps:Check the hosts file on the affected user's computer (C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts on Windows or /etc/hosts on Unix/Linux).Look for entries that map the problematic hostname to an incorrect IP address and correct or remove them.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and system administration documentation.
  • Role of the Hosts File:
    • The hosts file is a local file on a computer that maps hostnames to IP addresses. It can be used to override DNS resolution by providing a static mapping of a hostname to an IP address.
  • Common Issues with the Hosts File:
    • If an incorrect IP address is mapped to a hostname in the hosts file, it can cause the computer to resolve the hostname to the wrong IP address. This can lead to navigation issues for specific websites while other users, relying on DNS, do not face the same problem.
  • Why Other Options are Less Likely:
    • Self-signed certificate: Relates to SSL/TLS and would cause a security warning, not a navigation failure.
    • Nameserver record: Affects all users, not just one.
    • IP helper: Used to forward DHCP requests and is unrelated to DNS resolution issues.
  • Troubleshooting Steps:
    • Check the hosts file on the affected user's computer (C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts on Windows or /etc/hosts on Unix/Linux).
    • Look for entries that map the problematic hostname to an incorrect IP address and correct or remove them.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and system administration documentation.
Question 9
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
  1.   GDPR
  2.   SCADA
  3.   SAML
  4.   PCI DSS
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of GDPR:General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.Scope and Objectives:GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.Comparison with Other Options:SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.Key Provisions:GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards.
  • Definition of GDPR:
    • General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
  • Scope and Objectives:
    • GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.
    • It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.
  • Comparison with Other Options:
    • SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.
    • SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.
    • PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.
  • Key Provisions:
    • GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards.
Question 10
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
  1.   A router with only one available LAN port
  2.   A firewall performing deep packet inspection
  3.   A hub utilizing jumbo frames
  4.   A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.Use Case for Subinterfaces:Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.Example Configuration:Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10encapsulation dot1Q 10ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0!interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20encapsulation dot1Q 20ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.of the Options:A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.Conclusion:Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.References:CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
  • Introduction to Subinterfaces:
    • Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
  • Use Case for Subinterfaces:
    • Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
    • This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
  • Example Configuration:
    • Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
  • The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
  • of the Options:
    • A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.
    • A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.
    • A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.
    • A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.
  • Conclusion:
    • Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.
References:
CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
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